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Why does [math] cot(-x (\pi/2))[/math] have a hole at (0, 0)? - Quora

Why does cot(−x (π/2))have a hole at (0, 0)? I am assuming because you are using π/2 you are measuring in the radian system. When x is equal to 0, −x (π/2) will equal π/2 and as a resultthe tangent is undefined, however the cotangent at π/2 is not undefined it is zero.

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∫((x2 3x 5)cos2x)dx (вычислить интеграл). ∫(x arccos⁡2(3x)1−9x2)dx\int \left(\frac{x \arccos ^2\left(3x\right)}{\sqrt{1-9x^2}}\right)dx.

discrete mathematics - Can the expected value of a PMF be zero, as in...

$X$ and $-X$ have the same distribution (by definition $X$ is symmetric) so that $\mathbb E(-X)=\mathbb EX$. This can used as follows: $0=X (-X)\Rightarrow 0=\mathbb E(X (-X))= \mathbb EX \mathbb E(-X)= 2\times\mathbb EX$ hence $\mathbb EX=0$. In general if $X$ is symmetric and...

Subreddit for 0x - the liquidity endpoint for DeFi.

Subreddit for 0x - the liquidity endpoint for DeFi.

0x: Powering the decentralized exchange of tokens on Ethereum

0x is an open protocol that enables the peer-to-peer exchange of assets on the Ethereum blockchain.

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